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12.1: Quizzes

Each chapter has a corresponding quiz.

Quiz 1- Introduction to Geography, Solar Energy and Seasons

1. Geographers use what method of inquiry to solve problems?

(a) behavioral analysis

(b) spatial analysis

(c) field work

(d) chronological analysis

(e) numeric analysis

2. Which of the following is an example of an open system?

(a) a city

(b) a river drainage basin

(c) a hurricane

(d) all of these are examples of open systems

(e) none of these are examples of open systems

3. Which of these is not one of the four earth systems that we study in Physical Geography?

(a) Lithosphere

(b) Hydrosphere

(c) Ecosphere

(d) Biosphere

(e) Atmosphere

4. Sun energy is:

(a) visible light, x-rays, and infrared radiation

(b) the driving force behind all exogenic systems on earth

(c) formed from the fusion of Helium gas

(d) all of the above

(e) A & B only

5. Which of the following accurately describes Earth's distance from the sun?

(a) The earth-sun distance is exactly 93 million miles (150 million km).

(b) It takes light an average of 12 minutes to travel from the sun to earth.

(c) The earth is 91.5 million miles from the sun in January, and 94.5 million miles from the sun in July.

(d) June is known as the perihelion, December is known as the aphelion.

(e) All of the above.

6. Which of the following is not true of electromagnetic energy?

(a) It can travel through empty space.

(b) All wavelengths of electromagnetic energy travel at the same speed.

(c) The visible portion of the spectrum comprises only a small part of the total range of electromagnetic energy.

(d) The wavelength generated is directly proportional to the temperature of the emitter - e.g. as the temperature of the emitting object increases, the wavelength also increases.

(e) The hotter an object is, the more energy it emits at all wavelengths.

7. The primary cause of seasons is

(a) the tilt of the earth.

(b) the solstice.

(c) the distance between the sun and the earth at the aphelion and perihelion.

(d) the amount of heat stored in the oceans.

(e) annual solar flares.

8. Which of the following is not true?

(a) On December 22nd the subsolar point is at the Tropic of Cancer.

(b) On the spring equinox everyplace on earth has 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of darkness.

(c) On June 21st all latitudes above the Arctic Circle receive 24 hours of daylight.

(d) The South Pole on New Year's Day receives 24 hours of sunlight.

(e) On September 23rd the subsolar point is at the equator.

9. On June 21st, the sun never sets in John's location. Based on this, it can be concluded that John lives

(a) between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle.

(b) between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle.

(c) at the Equator.

(d) above the Arctic Circle.

(e) below the Antarctic Circle.

10. While standing at the Tropic of Cancer, Cecilia's shadow points north at noon (sun time). Based on this, which of the following can definitely be concluded?

(a) It must be the summer solstice in Cecilia's location.

(b) It must be the winter solstice in Cecilia's location.

(c) It must be one of the equinoxes.

(d) It must not be the summer solstice in Cecilia's location.

(e) It must not be the winter solstice in Cecilia's location.

Quiz 2: Measuring, Monitoring and Describing the Earth

1. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The Prime Meridian is 0 degrees of latitude.

(b) Lines of latitude are parallel.

(c) The Eastern hemisphere is defined by longitude.

(d) The Arctic circle is outside of the circle of illumination on December 22nd.

(e) The international date line is in the middle of the Pacific Ocean.

 2. You are in a ship located at 20 degrees West. You want to sail to a time zone that is two hours earlier (sun time). You should sail:

(a) due south for two hours

(b) 15 degrees west

(c) 15 degrees east

(d) 30 degrees west

(e) 30 degrees east

3. If City A is located west of city B, the time for City A is ________ than that at City B because the earth rotates from __________ when viewed from the North Pole.

(a) earlier; west to east (i.e. counterclockwise)

(b) earlier; east to west (i.e. clockwise)

(c) later; west to east (i.e. counterclockwise)

(d) later; east to west (i.e. clockwise)

4. Remote sensing is

(a) a subjective determination of temperature.

(b) the monitoring of objects without physical contact.

(c) an earthbound technique, not used by satellites.

(d) based on the principle that surfaces must be physically handled and directly measured for study.

5. Which of the following is an example of an active remote sensing device?

(a) film

(b) a video camera

(c) an infrared sensor

(d) radar

 6. A mercator map projection

(a) is known as a conic type of projection.

(b) greatly distorts the area of landmasses near the poles.

(c) is not good for navigation.(d) results in an oval shaped depiction of the earth.

7. An example of a small scale map would be:

(a) 1:50

(b) 1:5,000

(c) 1:50,000

(d) 1:5,000,000

 8. Which of the following is not true of GPS?

(a) GPS stands for 'Global Positioning Systems'.

(b) GPS are used by farmers.

(c) GPS use satellites and a hand held receiver to determine a position on earth.

(d) GPS can calculate elevation to within 250m.

 9. Which of the following is not true about a GIS:

(a) A GIS is a computer-based map.

(b) A GIS is an information management tool.

(c) One of the longest-operating and most extensive GIS systems is the University of Washington State-Wide data system.

(d) GIS can be applied to many different academic majors.

 10. Who was the first person to create a marine chronometer that helped ships accurately determine their longitude?

(a) John Harrison

(b) Edward Arnold

(c) Galileo Galilei

(d) Robert Harris

Quiz 3 - The Atmosphere

1. The type of temperature that you measure with a thermometer is called:

(a) latent heat

(b) temperate heat

(c) logical heat

(d) sensible heat

(e) none of the above

 2. Evaporation of water (a change from liquid to gas) ________ latent heat, creating a __________ effect.

(a) absorbs; heating

(b) absorbs; cooling

(c) releases; heating

(d) releases; cooling

(e) none of the above

3. The standard atmospheric lapse rate is

(a) 5.3ºC/km

(b) 2.8ºC/km

(c) 3.5ºC/km

(d) 6.4ºC/km

(e) 1.0ºC/km

4.  Which of the following is not a way in which we define the atmosphere in geography?

(a) temperature

(b) function

(c) height

(d) composition

5. What portion of the atmosphere does the biosphere primarily interact with?

(a) heterosphere

(b) troposphere

(c) ozonosphere

(d) lithosphere

 6. Temperatures in the stratosphere __________ with increasing altitude because __________.

(a) decrease; of the normal lapse rate effect

(b) decrease; ozone blocks sunlight from entering this layer

(c) increase; ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the sun and then reradiates it at infrared wavelengths

(d) increase; ozone acts as a greenhouse gas which traps ultraviolet energy radiated by the earth's surface

7. Which gas is the most abundant in the homosphere?

(a) Oxygen

(b) Nitrogen

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Hydrogen

8. The sky is blue because

(a) our sun emits mostly blue light.

(b) short wavelengths are scattered more than long and blue is the most dominant short wavelength.

(c) short wavelengths are absorbed more than long, and blue is the longest visible wavelength.

(d) oxygen transmits blue light better than any other wavelength.

9. The primary difference between a real greenhouse and our atmospheric greenhouse is

(a) our atmosphere has circulation (wind) and a real greenhouse does not.

(b) NOX and CFC's are the primary cause of the atmospheric greenhouse, and are generally not present in a real greenhouse.

(c) photochemical smog results from long wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation interacting with the gaseous greenhouse, but not with a real greenhouse.

(d) a real greenhouse is an open system, but our atmosphere is a closed system.

10. Ozone in the lower troposphere

(a) forms acid rain.

(b) is beneficial. It blocks harmful ultra violet radiation.

(c) causes eye, nose and throat irritation in humans.

(d) is mostly found in rural, sparsely populated areas of the southern hemisphere.

Quiz 4 - Global Circulation

1. On a weather map of air pressure, what can you infer from a closer spacing of isobars?

(a) little, without knowing temperature patterns

(b) a steep pressure gradient creating a slower flow of air

(c) a steep pressure gradient creating a faster flow of air

(d) a weak pressure gradient creating a slower flow of air

 2. Air flows ________ high pressure area because the density of the air in the high pressure zone is ___________ than that of the surrounding air

(a) into; more dense

(b) into; less dense

(c) out of; more dense

(d) out of; less dense

3. Which of the following is true of objects and wind moving over a distance on Earth's surface?

(a) They are always deflected from a straight path to the west in the southern hemisphere.

(b) They are affected only by the pressure gradient and the friction force.

(c) They are always deflected clockwise by the friction force.

(d) They are apparently deflected clockwise from a straight path in the Northern hemisphere.

 4. Which of the following matches is incorrect relative to air circulation?

(a) anticyclone = high pressure center

(b) cyclone = low pressure center

(c) anticyclone = clockwise circulation in the Southern hemisphere

(d) cyclone = counterclockwise circulation in the Northern hemisphere

 5. On the Earth between 30º and 60º north latitude, winds flow from the _______ as they flow out of the _______ pressure zone toward the ________ pressure zone

(a) northeast; subtropical high; subpolar low

(b) west-southwest; subtropical high; subpolar low

(c) northeast; subpolar low; subtropical high

(d) west-southwest; sub polar low; subtropical high

6. In the horse latitudes surface winds are _________ because ________.

(a) strong; air converges into this region from both north and south.

(b) strong; the horse latitudes are located directly under a high pressure zone characterized by descending, rather than horizontally moving air.

(c) weak; air converges into this region from both north and south.

(d) weak; the horse latitudes are located directly under a high pressure zone characterized by descending, rather than horizontally moving air.

 7. Land-sea breezes are caused by

(a) the fact that water heats and cools faster than land surfaces.

(b) cooler air flowing offshore (toward the ocean) in the afternoon.

(c) onshore (toward the land) air flows that develop in the afternoon as the land heats faster than the nearby water surfaces.

(d) the fact that warmer air is denser and settles to the surface of the land.

 8. Mountain-valley breezes are caused by

(a) warmer air descending mountain slopes during the day.

(b) valley air ascending the mountain slopes at night.

(c) warm air rising upslope during the day and cooler air descending the slopes at night.

(d) gravity drainage.

9. Ocean currents are produced by

(a) the frictional drag of winds.

(b) the Coriolis force and water density differences.

(c) land-sea breezes.

(d) A & B

 10. If the earth did not rotate, air would flow

(a) perpendicular to the isobars, i.e. straight across the isobars.

(b) to the right of its direction of motion in the Northern hemisphere.

(c) to the left of its direction in the Northern hemisphere.

(d) parallel to the isobars, i.e. along isobars.

Quiz 5 - Water and Water Resources

1. The largest portion of fresh water today is located in

(a) clouds

(b) groundwater resources

(c) ice caps and glaciers

(d) the major rivers and lakes of the world

 2. The property that makes water 'wet' and is the cause of capillary action is:

(a) hydrogen bonding

(b) covalent bonding

(c) atomic friction

(d) molecular hold

 3. When water condenses, it _____ heat energy and ______ the surrounding air.

(a) absorbs; cools

(b) absorbs; heats

(c) releases; cools

(d) releases; heats

 4. When water evaporates, it ____ heat energy and ______ the surrounding air.

(a) absorbs; cools

(b) absorbs; heats

(c) releases; cools

(d) releases; heats

5. Which of the following would cause the evaporation rate to decrease?

(a) increased water availability

(b) increased relative humidity

(c) increased temperature

(d) increased wind speed

 6. Which of the following is normally true of a hot desert?

(a) potential evapotranspiration exceeds actual evapotranspiration.

(b) actual evapotranspiration exceeds potential evapotranspiration.

(c) potential evapotranspiration equals actual evapotranspiration.

(d) it is impossible to say what the normal relationship between potential and actual evapotranspiration would be in a desert.

7. Which of the following accurately describes annual groundwater withdrawal in the United States?

(a) Withdrawals increased 150 percent between 1950 and 1995.

(b) The percentage of withdrawals in the US and Canada are about the same.

(c) Groundwater pumping is presently not exceeding water recharge rates.

(d) The amount withdrawn is equal to the river discharge in the US.

 8. Raindrops

(a) are formed when water reaches its dew point and condenses.

(b) are created immediately when clouds form.

(c) always reach the ground.

(d) are formed through the collision-coalescence process.

 9. Water enters the soil through a process called ______, and then moves downward through the soil in a process called ______.

(a) percolation; infiltration

(b) infiltration; percolation

(c) throughfall; percolation

(d) infiltration; advection

10. Condensation in a storm _______ the temperature of the air and causes the air pressure in the storm system to _______.

(a) increases; rise

(b) increases; drop

(c) decreases; rise

(d) decreases; drop

Quiz 6 - Weather and Climate

1. Summer afternoon thunder showers in the southeastern United States are more than likely a result of

(a) convectional lifting.

(b) orographic lifting.

(c) frontal lifting.

(d) subtropical high pressure disturbance.

 2. When a cold front approaches, air pressure will initially _____ due to the displacement and uplift of ______ air.

(a) increase; cold

(b) increase; warm

(c) decrease; cold

(d) decrease; warm

 3. Tornadoes

(a) are rarely associated with hurricanes.

(b) are usually associated with cold front activity.

(c) do not occur anywhere else in the world outside of the United States.

(d) are called funnel clouds after they come in contact with the ground.

 4. Why are the winds in a hurricane and tornado so strong?

(a) The pressure gradient is strong.

(b) The pressure at the center of the storm is very low.

(c) Tremendous amounts of condensation occur in the center of the storm, releasing latent heat energy.

(d) All of the above

5. The annual frequency of tropical cyclones is greatest in the _____ ocean.

(a) Pacific

(b) Atlantic

(c) Indian

(d) South Atlantic

6. Which of the following lists the correct, generalized sequence of Koppen climates from the equator to the poles?

(a) H --> D --> C --> B --> A

(b) H --> B --> C --> D --> A

(c) A --> B --> C --> D --> E

(d) E --> D --> C --> B --> A

 7. Soils in a tropical rain forest are nutrient-______ because _______.

(a) rich; leaves from trees provide lots of organic matter to the soil.

(b) rich; organic matter remains in the soil for a long time due to the slow rate at which it decomposes.

(c) poor; very little organic matter is added to the soil because all the vegetation in a tropical forest is evergreen.

(d) poor; heavy rains wash away nutrients.

8. The Pacific Northwest region of the US is a moist environment because of

(a) the effect of maritime air masses.

(b) the presence of mountains.

(c) the predominant direction the winds blow at that latitude (45 to 50 degrees north).

(d) all of the above.

9. Which climatic region contains and feeds the greatest number of people in the world?

(a) wet equatorial

(b) tropical savannah

(c) mesothermal

(d) microthermal

10. The gas that is thought to be responsible for more than half of the anthropogenic warming of the atmosphere is

(a) methane

(b) water vapor

(c) carbon dioxide

(d) CFC's

Quiz 7 - Earth Materials

1. The Precambrian Eon encompasses what percentage of the Earth's total history?

(a) 0.04%

(b) 5%

(c) 22.4%

(d) Over 85%

 2. Who first proposed the theory of uniformitarianism?

(a) Plato

(b) James Hutton

(c) Charles Darwin

(d) Albert Wegner

3. The belief that large disasters (such as the flood described in the Christian Bible) have produced most of the major features of the earth is called:

(a) uniformitarianism

(b) isostacy

(c) metastable thresholds

(d) catastrophism

 4. The layer within the earth that lies directly below the lithosphere, but above the upper mantle, is best described as

(a) a plastic-like layer that flows in response to heat and pressure.

(b) a granitic material that weighs an average of 2.7g per cm3.

(c) the core.

(d) resistant to movement of any type.

 5. Continental crust is basically _______, whereas oceanic crust is basically ________.

(a) thin; thick

(b) basalt; granite

(c) granite; basalt

(d) igneous; metamorphic

6. The principles of buoyancy and balance, when applied to the Earth's crust, helps us to explain fluctuations in Earth's outer crust, a property known as ______________.

(a) magnetism

(b) Moho effect

(c) isostasy

(d) orogenesis

 7. The Sierra Nevada mountain range in California is an example of

(a) an extrusive igneous formation.

(b) a folded sedimentary belt.

(c) an exposed batholith.

(d) a volcano.

8. Sedimentary rocks are more a product of the _________ system whereas metamorphic and igneous rocks are more a product of the __________ system.

(a) exogenic; endogenic

(b) endogenic; exogenic

(c) tectonic; rock

(d) intrusive; extrusive

 9. Which of the following is not a cementing agent for clastic sedimentary rocks?

(a) calcium carbonate

(b) iron oxides

(c) salt

(d) silica

 10. The occurrence of contact metamorphism would be direct evidence for

(a) cementation of sedimentary rock.

(b) the local intrusion of magma.

(c) regional plate collision.

(d) lithification of clastics.

Quiz 8 - Shaping the Lithosphere

1. The variety of surface features on the Earth results from

(a) tectonic activity

(b) gravity

(c) weathering and erosion

(d) all of the above

 2. If you were afraid of earthquakes, which of the following areas would be the safest to live?

(a) convergent plate boundary

(b) divergent plate boundary

(c) island arc subduction zone

(d) shield

 3. Compressional stress along a fault can result in a dropped footwall block relative to the hanging-wall side, producing a _____________.

(a) normal fault

(b) thrust fault

(c) strike-slip fault

(d) lateral fault

4. In recent times, false rumors have spread suggesting that California is "going to fall into the ocean." In order for this to be true, the San Andreas fault would have to be a     ________ fault associated with _______ forces.

(a) normal; tension

(b) normal; compression

(c) reverse; tension

(d) reverse; compression

5. Which of the following is true regarding the Richter scale?

(a) It is a scale of magnitude based on arithmetical progression (1, 2, 3...).

(b) It is a closed scale that begins at 0.0 and ends at 10.0.

(c) An 8.0 on the scale is equal to 31.5 times more energy released than a 7.0.

(d) It is the same as the Mercalli scale.

6. How often would you expect an earthquake of greater than 8.0 on the Richter scale, or XII on the Mercalli scale to occur?

(a) 120 times per year

(b) 800 times per year

(c) only once every few years

(d) once or twice a century

 7. Volcanoes formed from silica rich magma ____________.

(a) have gently sloping surfaces that give them the appearance of a shield.

(b) are highly explosive and dangerous.

(c) are associated with midocean ridges.

(d) are associated with rift zones.

 8. Which of the following statements about shield volcanoes is true?

(a) They occur only in shield areas of the earth.

(b) They are subject to violently explosive eruptions.

(c) They form from mafic magma.

(d) They consist of tremendous quantities of pyroclastics.

 9. The Appalachian mountains of the eastern USA.

(a) are a scar of a 250 to 300 million year old convergent boundary.

(b) are comprised of stratified sedimentary rocks.

(c) were formed in a massive earthquake in the 18th century.

(d) were formed at the same time as the Rocky Mountain range in the western USA.

 10. Which of the following volcanic hazards is not correctly matched?

(a) Mount St. Helens, USA = pyroclastic flow

(b) Mount Pinatubo, Philippines = lahar

(c) Lake Nyos, Cameroon = toxic gases

(d) Kilauea, USA = pyroclastic flow

Quiz 9 - Mass Wasting

1. If the earth did not experience endogenic processes, the landscape would

(a) be rugged and of great relief as a result of uplift in the absence of weathering conditions.

(b) consist of high mountains and hills with smooth, gentle slopes.

(c) be of very low relief as a result of weathering and erosion in the absence of uplift.

(d) covered with thick glaciers.

 2. Chemical weathering is greatest under conditions of

(a) higher mean annual rainfall and temperatures.

(b) lower mean annual rainfall and temperatures.

(c) temperatures that reach below freezing.

(d) rainfall of less than 25 cm (10 in) per year.

 3. Physical weathering is greatest under conditions of

(a) higher mean annual rainfall and temperatures.

(b) lower mean annual rainfall and temperatures.

(c) temperatures that reach below freezing.

(d) rainfall of less than 25 cm (10 in) per year.

 4. In most areas, the upper surface of bedrock is partially weathered to broken up rock called

(a) parent rock

(b) bedrock

(c) sediment

(d) regolith

 5. Which of the following are the principal active agents involved in chemical weathering?

(a) oxygen, silicon, aluminum

(b) magnesium, water, limestone

(c) water, oxygen, carbon dioxide

(d) nitrogen, oxygen, argon

 6. Wind is ______ effective at eroding and transporting materials than other geomorphic agents because its density is ______ than that of other geomorphic agents.

(a) more; more

(b) more; less

(c) less; more

(d) less; less

7. The lowering of land surface by the lifting and removal of light material, leaving only heavy material is termed ________, whereas the grinding of rock surfaces with a     'sandblasting' action is termed _________.

(a) abrasion; deflation

(b) deflation; abrasion

(c) saltation; abrasion

(d) mass wasting; deflation

 8. Karst topography is formed primarily by

(a) carbonic acid solution.

(b) mass wasting process.

(c) oxidation and hydrolysis.

(d) exfoliation and hydration.

 9. Unlike a stream-cut valley that assumes a characteristic ________-shape, a glacially-carved valley evidences a characteristic _________-shape.

(a) U; V

(b) V; U

(c) flat; rounded

(d) steep; shallow

 10. Which of the following features did not result from glacial processes?

(a) The fjords along the coast of Norway

(b) Walden Pond, near Boston, MA

(c) Lake Nyos, Cameroon

(d) Halfdome in Yosemite, CA

Quiz 10 - The River and the Sea

1. Rivers east of the continental divide in the Rockies drain into the __________.

(a) Pacific drainage

(b) Hudson Bay/Arctic drainage

(c) Gulf/Atlantic drainage

(d) interior West drainage

 2. Rectangular drainage patterns form as a result of ___________.

(a) differential resistance to erosion.

(b) domal uplift.

(c) flow through anticlinal and synclinal topography.

(d) flow through a faulted landscape.

 3. As the discharge of a stream increases, which of the following also happens?

(a) Stream channels narrow, become shallower, and lose velocity.

(b) The rate of flow decreases.

(c) Channel width increases but channel depth decreases.

(d) Width, depth, and velocity all increase.

4. In order to control flooding, levees are frequently constructed along the banks of rivers to confine flow to the channel. Given this, what happens to the flow velocity and     erosive power of the stream during a flood, before the water overflows the levee? (Consider the equation Q=wdv when answering this question.)

(a) Velocity increases because the width does not increase, and the erosive power increases.

(b) Velocity increases because depth does not increase, and the erosive power increases.

(c) Velocity decreases because the depth of the channel is significantly greater, and the erosive power increases.

(d) Velocity decreases because the width of the channel is significantly less and the erosive power decreases.

 5. The construction of a dam across a river is likely to cause ______ upstream of the dam, and _______ downstream.

(a) erosion; aggradation

(b) erosion; erosion

(c) aggradation; erosion

(d) aggradation; aggradation

 6. The height of a tsunami grows as it approaches a coastline primarily because

(a) its energy level increases.

(b) its wavelength shortens.

(c) the height of the surf is added to the height of the tsunami.

(d) none of the above are true -- the height of a tsunami remains constant from its time of origin.

 7. The littoral zone extends inland to ______________.

(a) the foreshore dune.

(b) the backshore dune.

(c) the trough between the primary and secondary dune.

(d) the highest water line that occurs during a storm.

 8. A coral is a type of ______ that secretes _______ to form an organic rock home.

(a) polyp; calcium carbonate

(b) polyp; silica

(c) algae; calcium carbonate

(d) algae; silica

 9. Which of the following occurs when the Sun, Moon and Earth are in alignment (i.e., in opposition or conjunction)?

(a) maximum tidal ranges occur

(b) neap tides occur

(c) a lower tidal range occurs

(d) none of the above -- this type of alignment does not happen in nature.

 10. Approximately what percentage of the world's population lives within 100 km of the ocean?

(a) 1/20

(b) 1/4

(c) 2/5

(d) 9/10

Quiz 11 - The Biosphere

1. Which of the following is not true of soils?

(a) They usually require centuries or millennia to form.

(b) Their development is affected by climate and organisms.

(c) Soils rich in organic matter are usually dark in color.

(d) Older soils usually have fewer horizons than younger soils.

 2. The A horizon is usually ______ underlying layers because _______.

(a) darker than; it is made of dark-colored mafic minerals

(b) darker than; it contains humus

(c) lighter than; it is made of light-colored felsic minerals

(d) lighter than; it contains little humus, but considerable amounts of mineral particles

 3. If humus were lost from soil due to excessive farming or soil erosion, which of the following could occur?

(a) loss of soil structure

(b) loss of fertility

(c) loss of water holding capacity

(d) all of the above

 4. Which of the following does not increase porosity?

(a) worms

(b) root growth

(c) laterization

(d) ped formation

 5. Which of the following is correct?        

(a) There is only one community within each distinct ecosystem.

(b) An ecosystem is the interaction of many communities with the abiotic physical components of their environment.

(c) Within a single lake there is usually only one community.

(d) By definition, a community includes abiotic factors.

 6. Chlorophyll ______ green light; which means that it _____ green light for photosynthesis.

(a) absorbs; uses

(b) absorbs; does not use

(c) reflects; uses

(d) reflects; does not use

 7. In the Northern Hemisphere midlatitudes, north-facing slopes tend to be _______ vegetated than south-facing slopes because _______.

(a) less; they are colder

(b) less; they receive less sunlight

(c) more; they are more moist

(d) more; they are more windy

 8. Bears eat both plants and animals; therefore they are ____________.

(a) herbivores

(b) carnivores

(c) omnivores

(d) specialists

 9. In nature, approximately _____ of the calories in plant matter survive from the primary to the secondary trophic (feeding, nutrition) level.

(a) 10%

(b) 30%

(c) 50%

(d) 90%

 10. In a food chain, toxic chemicals tend to accumulate and concentrate most in the _________.

(a) top carnivore

(b) autotrophs

(c) primary consumers

(d) primary producers